We met with the surgeon this morning. He seems very qualified. He wants to do an SNB on my husband's .8 mm thick tumor because of the regression noted in the pathology report. The reasoning seems to be regression indicates it may have been thicker at one time. Surgery will be in 2-3 weeks.
I don't understand much of the terminology in the report. Would appreciate any insight others may have.
University Dermatology Pathology Services
Los Angeles, CA
Microscopic Diagnosis: 1 Melanoma, Level III – approximately 0.8 mm in thickness, mitosis zero per square mm, moderate lymphocytic inflammation, ulceration absent, regression noted
Microscopic Description: 1: The sections show an asymmetric proliferation of atypical melanocytes present at the dermal-epidermal junction and in the dermis. The atypical melanocytes at the dermal-epidermal junction are present as single cells and nests of varying sizes and shapes, show focal confluent growth and are seen above the basal layer of the epidermis. The melanocytes extends into the dermis to a depth of 0.8 mm. The atypical melanocytes have enlarged, hyperchromatic nuclei and scant cytoplasm. Mitosis approximates zero per square mm. There is moderate lymphocytic inflammation noted. No ulceration in present. Foci of regression noted.
Comment: 1: The tumor extends to the margins a definitive re-excision is recommended.
I guess we both just need to keep the faith until the surgery is done!
